Will the true adultery and fornication please stand up.

The following is a response to a number of friends of TTGM to the paper on Adultery and Fornication.

Apologist Response to Adultery and Fornication Questions (AFQ)

Completed by TTGM – 28.04.2023


To explain why the Old Testament (OT) is used to support TTGM’s answers, it’s important to understand the meaning of the word “scripture.” When the word scripture appears in the New Testament (NT), it does not refer to the New Testament itself, although Christianity considers the New Testament books to be part of scripture. Instead, whenever scripture is mentioned in the NT, it specifically refers to what is called the Tanakh, which includes the Torah/law and the prophets, also known as the Law of Moses or the Law of God.

This is because the writers of the New Testament only had access to the Tanakh, which was commonly found in Synagogues at the time. The first New Testament book was written around 32 AD, and the last one was written around 70-100 AD. The earliest known complete list of the 27 books of the New Testament was compiled by Athanasius, a bishop of Alexandria in the 4th century and dated to 367 AD.

The 27-book New Testament was formally canonized during the councils of Hippo in 393 and Carthage in 397 in North Africa. Pope Innocent I later ratified the same canon in 405, although it is likely that a Council in Rome in 382 under Pope Damasus I provided the same list first. These councils also established the canon of the Old Testament, which included the deuterocanonical books.

The books of the New Testament were referred to as Gospels, Epistles, Revelation, and so on, but were never called scripture. If one were to ask the writers of the New Testament about the New Testament books, they would not know what was being referred to. For Further Study about the NT..

This is why we use the scripture/Tanakh (OT) for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
(2Tim 3:16 [KJV])
All scripture (Tanakh) is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

This is why we search the scripture/Tanakh (OT) to check to see what is true.
(Acts 17:11 [KJV])
These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures (there was no NT when this was written) daily, whether those things were so.

To understand the NT, you must first understand the OT. If you do not understand the OT (law/prophets), your doctrines will be in error (as many are today). MEANING?: When we read the New Testament we must have a full understanding of the Old Testament. It is said, “The New Testament is hidden in the Old and the Old Testament is revealed in the New.

Now, from Strong’s concordance, we look at the words used and show the distinction. 

Epistles = G1992 ἐπιστολή epistole (ep-is-tol-ay’) n.
1. a written message
[from G1989]
KJV: “epistle,” letter 

Scripture = G1124 γραφή graphe (graf-ay’) n.
1. a document, i.e. holy Writ (or its contents or a statement in it)
[(not given)]
KJV: scripture 

Here is the distinction between epistle and scripture. The New Testament writers were aware of each other’s letters/epistles. IMPORTANT Note: The epistles were seen as having the same authority as the other scriptures. 
(2Pet 3:16 [KJV])
As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

NO APOSTLE WROTE “SCRIPTURE” IN THE NEW TESTAMENT, they wrote epistles. Go look up the word scripture in the NT and you would find it ALWAYS refers back to the Tanakh.

We Begin our response…

1. Questions by Friends on Adultery and Fornication (AFQ):
They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?” He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”
Matthew 19:7‭-‬9

TTGM’s Response (TR): 
There is one exception for divorce and it is called fornication (sexual immorality). If a man divorces his wife except for this cause (fornication) the man would commit adultery if he remarries another woman. Also, if someone marries a woman that was divorced, they too (the man) would be committing adultery.

In a marriage there is the betrothal period (commitment/covenant/agreement to each other) and then the consummation point, when the two become one flesh. If the woman becomes one flesh with another man during the betrothal period it is the sin of fornication. If she committed this sin and it is found out, the husband has the right to put her away either publicly or privately. Read the story about Joseph and Mary. It was Joseph’s right to put Mary away (divorce) when she became pregnant, for he believed she fornicated (we know how that story goes). Note: a betrothed woman that becomes one flesh with another man cannot commit to him because she is already committed (betrothed) to the first man.  

* * * * * *

2. AFQ:
if a man is blameless, the husband of one wife, having faithful children not accused of dissipation or insubordination.
Titus 1:6

Or where a qualification of a Bishop is that he only has one wife?

Understanding how the word “one” is used in the New Testament.

There are two words in Greek translated one in English (No.1 and No.2).

No.1 – The word mia can also be translated “first” (first subject)
Strong’s concordance. 
One = G3391 μία mia (miy’-a) n.
one or first.
[irregular feminine of G1520]
KJV: a (certain), + agree, first, one, X other
Root(s): G1520

No.2 – The word heis can also be translated “only”(only subject)
One = G1520 εἷς heis (heis’) n.
ἕν hen (hen’) [including the neuter (etc.)]
[a primary numeral]
KJV: a(-n, -ny, certain), + abundantly, man, one (another), only, other, some 

—-  —-

Now we will insert what is used by Paul for “one wife” and “one man/husband”. 
(1Tim 3:2 [KJV])
A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one (mia=first) wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

(1Tim 3:12 [KJV])
Let the deacons be the husbands of one one (mia=first) wife, ruling their children and their own houses well.

(Titus 1:6 [KJV])
If any be blameless, the husband of one (mia=first)  wife, having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly.

Here we insert the word used for one man.
(1Tim 5:9 [KJV])
Let not a widow be taken into the number under threescore years old, having been the wife of one (heis=only) man,

If you did not get it yet, you will notice that Paul knows a man can have a “first” wife so he uses the Greek word mia with regard to a woman; he knows and keeps the Torah. He also knows a woman can only have one man (only), so he uses the word heis with regard to a man; he knows and keeps the Torah.

* * * * * *

3. AFQ:
How about in the N.T. where marriage is shown to be a picture of union between us (one bride) and Christ?

What does this question have to do with the fact that EVERY man in scripture that already had a wife gets ANOTHER wife if he becomes one flesh with a new woman? Anyhow, we will give an answer. Yes, we are the bride, and we are “more than one”, we are the church (ἐκκλησία ekklesia = called out assembly = a PLURAL group of people). God had two wives, He was married to Judah and Israel at the same time.
(Jer 31:31 [KJV])
Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant (marriage) with the house of Israel (1), and with the house of Judah (2):

Here He puts away one of them (Israel).
(Jer 3:8 [KJV])

And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.

(Jer 3:14 [KJV])
Turn, O backsliding children, saith the LORD; for I am married unto you: and I will take you one of a city, and two of a family, and I will bring you to Zion:

For more on God and His two Wives watch Pete Rambo on the topic

In the Old Testament, God/Yeshua was depicted as marrying Judah and Israel. Later, Yeshua divorced Israel and scattered her among the nations. However, Yeshua intends to reunite Israel and remarry her under the New Covenant. This is where Gentiles are included and grafted into the Olive tree, which represents Israel, in order to obtain salvation. Therefore, it is not that Gentiles have a separate Church, but rather they are outsiders who are being incorporated into the Israelite nation that Yeshua will gather from all corners of the earth and remarry.

He came for the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
(Matt 15:24 [KJV])
But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

The Gentile people are graffed into the Olive tree.
(Rom 11:17 [KJV])
And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert graffed in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree;

The church is actually the house of Israel from the lost tribes.

* * * * * *

4. AFQ:
My view is that God “winked” at former times but that His ideal is one husband, one wife.

God Winked? God ALWAYS judged sin Brother. He would not be a just God if He ignored sin. Again, you are insinuating that having more than one wife is sin and God had to wink (ignore it). Some also say God only created one man and one woman and this is his “ideal”. Note: God made one male and one female of every creature. If we follow the logic that creation is the “ideal” (and ignore the ORDER* of God), we should still be naked, as they were naked at the beginning, our sisters and brothers should still get married to one another as this was required from the beginning. 

If God is winking, why would he give the man after His own heart more than one wife? And to top it off, give him more if he wanted them. What kind of wink is this?
(2Sam 12:8 [KJV])
And I (God) gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.

Let us look at where this “wink” statement comes from. You will notice He winked at the times of this IGNORANCE. In the order of God, human relationships were clearly defined in the Torah/Law. No ignorance here.
(Acts 17:30 [KJV])
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:

What is the Order of God?
After the act of creation, God established a specific order for how humans are meant to live, which is also known as “the Way.” This order is outlined in His commandments (Torah). When we adhere to God’s commandments, we are in alignment with His order. However, when we disobey or transgress His commandments, we are no longer in alignment with His order and are considered to be out of order, or in a state of sin.

To those that still want to hold to man’s traditions.
TTGM showed you where rome changed the law on marriage, and to make it sin by further deceiving us, the definitions of adultery and fornication were changed.

Is this acceptable? 

Be blessed in understanding. 

To our Readers
If you have any Biblical question(s) write to us at info@truthgospel.org, and we will be happy to respond. 

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The commandments and the Torah | Deception in the church
Why would iniquity keep you out of Heaven? | Are you in God’s will?
Do you have the heart of an adulterer? | Are you thinking marriage?
What is true marriage? | Is polygamy sin in the eyes of God?
The right and wrong way to become one flesh and much more.

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